89 C-141 Questions ....

These questions were taken from some C-141 F.E. tests. How many can you answer correctly? I'll get around to posting an answer key in a few weeks.

  1. A WARNING is:
    1. An operating procedure, technique, etc., which is considered essential to emphasize.
    2. Operating procedures, techniques, etc., which could result in personal injury or loss of life if not carefully followed.
    3. Operating procedure, techniques, etc., which could result in personal injury or damage to equipment if not carefully followed.
    4. Operating procedures, techniques, etc., which could result in damage to equipment if not carefully followed.
  2. Who will monitor the audible APU Fire Warning System when the APU is required by the aircrew?
    1. Any flight station qualified crew member.
    2. A scanner or flight engineer.
    3. An appropriately trained loadmaster.
    4. A scanner, flight engineer, or appropriately trained loadmaster.
  3. If either of the emergency depressurization switches have been used to depressurize the aircraft, when will the cabin altitude limit override switch be placed in the OVERRIDE position?
    1. After the emergency depressurization switch is returned to NORMAL.
    2. Prior to placing the emergency pressurization switches in NORMAL.
    3. Only after the pilot completes a descent to an altitude below 10,000 feet.
    4. Prior to returning the emergency depressurization switch to NORMAL.
  4. Dry air operation of the wing anti-icing system is restricted to a ____ test. Prolonged operation in dry air can result in damage to the leading edge.
    1. momentary
    2. 1 minute
    3. 30 second
    4. 10 minute
  5. Do not operate the Empennage De-Ice system during dry air flight for more than ____ test cycle.
    1. momentary
    2. 30 seconds
    3. 1 minute
    4. 10 minutes
  6. If windshear or microburst phenomena are forecast or likely to occur,
    1. double check reduced takeoff data since increasing tailwinds may invalidate computed refusal speed.
    2. make a TRT takeoff and closely monitor aircraft performance on climbout
    3. make a Standing TRT takeoff based on runway available minus 200 feet.
    4. make a Standing TRT takeoff and immediately reduce power when climb is established.
  7. What speed should be maintained if holding is required at altitudes higher than the maximum endurance altitude?
    1. Best endurance speed.
    2. Best endurance speed plus 10 knots or stall speed (30 degrees of bank) plus 25 knots whichever is higher.
    3. Holding is always conducted at 200 KCAS below 257,500 pounds and below or 220 KCAS above 257,500 pounds.
    4. Hold at max endurance speed or NRT (with altitude hold engaged).
  8. The warning horn signal for crash landing immediately after takeoff is:
    1. one short, restrained blast.
    2. six short blasts.
    3. one long, sustained blast.
    4. three short blasts.
  9. If an APU fire or fuselage fire occurs during the flight engineer's preflight and communications are available, notify the tower of the:
    1. aircraft tail number, location.
    2. nature of emergency, aircraft tail number.
    3. nature of emergency, location, persons onboard.
    4. nature of emergency, aircraft number, and location.
  10. If excessive braking has been used during an emergency stop and the brakes are reported overheated, the aircraft should not be:
    1. taxied any more than necessary to clear runway.
    2. maneuvered into a crowded parking area.
    3. parked with parking brake set.
    4. all of the above.
  11. Which of the following actions may aid a crew in closing a thrust reverser that opened in flight?
    1. Rapidly retard the throttle to quickly remove engine air loads.
    2. Climb to a higher altitude where the less dense air will decrease drag.
    3. Increase thrust on the affected engine.
    4. Open the THRUST REV POS IND or THRUST REV PRESS VALVE PWR circuit breakers.
  12. An engine fire condition is indicated by:
    1. A flashing light in the fire handle with an audible warning if one of the doors in the door warning circuit is open.
    2. A flashing light in the fire handle with an audible warning.
    3. A steady light in the fire handle with an audible warning if one of the doors in the door warning circuit is open.
    4. A steady light in the associated fire handle with an audible warning.
  13. Which of the following conditions require immediate engine shutdown?
    1. Engine fire, high EVI, engine disintegration.
    2. Engine fire, high oil pressure, engine disintegration.
    3. Engine fire, extreme engine vibration, engine disintegration.
    4. Engine fire, starter disintegration, extreme engine vibration.
  14. The third BOLDFACE item for the SMOKE AND FUME ELIMINATION checklist is "AIR CONDITIONING MASTER SWITCH - AS REQUIRED". The "As Required" is:
    1. remain in BOTH unless the left pack is inoperative.
    2. remain in right unless the left pack is inoperative.
    3. use RAM only if both air conditioning packs are inoperative.
    4. both a and c are correct.
  15. If the aircraft was depressurized at a high altitude, the cabin limit override switch should not be placed back to normal until cabin altitude is below ___________
    1. 20,000 feet.
    2. 13,000 feet.
    3. 16,000 feet.
    4. 10,000 feet.
  16. Removing electrical power from fuel boost pumps while the crossfeed valves are in the crossfeed position will cause engine flameout as fuel in the auxiliary and extended range tanks becomes depleted.
    1. True
    2. False
  17. If an electrical fire persists after turning off all four bus power disconnect switches, the source of the fire is probably:
    1. on the Main AC Tie Bus.
    2. on the Emergency AC or DC busses.
    3. Nav Bus #2.
    4. Nav Bus #1.
  18. If a DOOR OPEN light illuminates in flight and then extinguishes during depressurization and it cannot be determined what caused the light to illuminate, the flight may:
    1. be continued with the aircraft depressurized below the point where the light illuminated.
    2. be continued, but airspeed will be restricted to 200 knots/0.48 MACH.
    3. be continued, with the aircraft immediately depressurized to 4.0 PSID.
    4. be continued with no restriction on pressurization.
  19. Bailout should not be attempted from the crew entrance door at airspeeds above _____ KCAS.
    1. 235
    2. 150
    3. 250
    4. 200
  20. If a rapid decompression occurs, the number _________ pressure light may illuminate due to the rapid change of differential pressure. If this indication is not accompanied by the _______, system should be left on.
    1. two suction boost pump / engine system pressure low lights
    2. two engine / number two suction boost pump pressure low light
    3. one engine / number one suction boost pump pressure low light
    4. one suction boost pump / engine system pressure low lights
  21. Which of the following precautions should be observed when jettisoning fuel?
    1. Do not jettison close to the ground.
    2. Do not ventilate the aircraft until jettisoning is complete.
    3. Do not jettison in a circular, descending pattern.
    4. Both a and c are correct.
  22. After landing, if emergency brakes are selected and the spoilers do not deploy, make only one additional attempt to deploy them. Why?
    1. Spoilers are inoperative.
    2. Both #1 and #2 hydraulic systems are required to be operational on the ground.
    3. Continued attempts to deploy the spoilers may place an excessive demand on the #3 hydraulic system to the point where emergency brakes are ineffective.
    4. Spoiler asymmetry will most likely occur.
  23. Which of the following malfunctions will not cause the landing gear warning light to illuminate?
    1. One or more of the main landing gear door uplocks are not engaged.
    2. The main landing gear bogie accumulator failed indicating a bogie malfunction.
    3. One or more of the main landing gear door uplock microswitches have malfunctioned.
    4. The throttle microswitch has malfunctioned in the closed position.
  24. What is the recommended flap setting for a two-engine approach?
    1. 100% under all conditions to increase lift.
    2. 0% to avoid the possibility of flap asymmetry.
    3. 75% unless runway length becomes a factor.
    4. Interpolate a flap setting based on final approach speed.
  25. Ditching may result in one of three cases. The most probable case for the C-141B is:
    1. CASE I - Pressurized cabin is not ruptured.
    2. CASE II - Pressurized cabin is not ruptured.
    3. CASE III - Nine degree nose down attitude and wings floating on the water.
    4. CASE IV - Pressurized cabin is ruptured.
  26. After a runaway pitch trim, which system should be reset first?
    1. Hydraulic, because of it's quicker response time.
    2. Electric, because of the slower rate and the autopilot is available.
    3. Electro-hydraulic, because the crew maintains positive control over the system electrically.
    4. Electro-hydraulic, because of the faster rate and the autopilot is available.
  27. With the rudder depowered, the maximum crosswind for landing is
    1. 20 knots
    2. 15 knots
    3. 10 knots
    4. 25 knots
  28. When is it practical after landing to repressurize the No. 2 hydraulic system after a runaway pitch trim caused a hydraulic trim malfunction?
    1. After touchdown to regain normal brakes.
    2. After touchdown to regain nose wheel steering.
    3. After clearing the runway to regain normal brakes.
    4. Never, have aircraft towed from the runway.
  29. Which of the following statements pertaining to use of the flaps with loss of asymmetry protection is true?
    1. The flap lever should be moved in small increments.
    2. The flaps cannot be closed when electrical power is lost.
    3. The flaps may be extended provided the spoilers are not deployed more than 20 degrees.
    4. The flap high force detent cannot be removed.
  30. A hydraulic system failure that results in misting/fogging:
    1. will not be repressurized under any circumstances.
    2. should not be repressurized unless, in the opinion of the pilot, a greater emergency exists.
    3. do not turn the troop oxygen ON unless, in the opinion of the pilot, a greater emergency exists.
    4. both b and c are correct.
  31. Which of the following GO speed definitions is correct?
    1. If VR, VB(mAx), VCEF or 147 KCAS is GO speed, it must be equal to or greater than VMCG.
    2. If VR is GO speed, VMCG is not a factor.
    3. If GO speed is VB(mAx) or 147 KCAS, then VB(mAx) or 147 KCAS must be equal to or greater than VMCG and VCEF.
    4. If GO speed is VR, an increase in VR due to wind gust will increase GO speed an equal amount not to exceed VROT, VB(MAX) or 147 KCAS.
  32. Forcing the nose gear steering past the _________ stops may result in complete loss of the nose gear steering system.
    1. 8 degrees
    2. 60 degrees
    3. 80 degrees
    4. 90 degrees
  33. The radar system should not be operated with hydraulic system pumps and/or the winch system simultaneously from __________ because damage may occur to the radar system.
    1. the APU generator
    2. an external power unit
    3. aircraft engine power
    4. both a & b are correct
  34. If you don a mask connected to a MA-1 portable oxygen bottle after a loss of cabin pressurization at FL 350, you should ensure the altitude selector on the A-21 regulator is set to ___________.
    1. Normal
    2. 30 M
    3. 42 M
    4. Emer
  35. Decomposing Halon 1211 vapor can be hazardous. ____________ is a built-in warning system for individuals in the hazard area.
    1. A sweet odor
    2. A sharp, acrid odor
    3. A yellow cloud/residue
    4. none of the above
  36. The wearing of ear protection is mandatory when occupying which seat(s) in the flight compartment?
    1. Left auxiliary crew seat (outbd ACM seat)
    2. Right auxiliary crew seat (inbd ACM seat)
    3. Crew bunk seats
    4. All of the above
  37. During preflight, the main tank fuel boost pumps should check within what block-line pressure?
    1. 4 - 6 PSI
    2. 13 -22 PSI
    3. 30 - 45 PSI
    4. 40 - 52 PSI
  38. When accomplishing the aerial refueling system preflight, ensure the slipway door is clear before:
    1. turning on the A/R MASTER SWITCH.
    2. pressurizing the A/R manifold.
    3. applying hydraulic pressure.
    4. all of the above.
  39. During normal engine start, which of the following actions may result in shearing the starter's shaft while it is engaged?
    1. Turning the generator control switch to ON prior to 50% N2.
    2. Placing the power selector switch to OFF.
    3. Placing the battery switch to OFF.
    4. Any of the above.
  40. During takeoff roll, a __________ shear may invalidate a precomputed refusal speed.
    1. increasing tailwind
    2. decreasing tailwind
    3. increasing headwind
    4. decreasing headwind
  41. After an engine fire has been extinguished by using one bottle only,
    1. move the bottle selector switch to ALTERNATE and discharge the agent.
    2. move the bottle selector switch to ALTERNATE so a bottle will be available for the other engine.
    3. do not move the bottle selector switch to ALTERNATE so a bottle will be available for the other engine.
    4. position of the bottle selector switch does not matter since the remaining bottle will automatically discharge to the remaining operating engine.
  42. Never airstart an engine that was shut down because of fire or mechanical failure.
    1. True
    2. False
  43. During cargo jettison, when aft of FS , the restraint harness will be connected at or forward of FS to a seat belt attachment ring or to a restraint rail ring.
    1. 713 / 713
    2. 1313 / 1313
    3. 713 / 1313
    4. 1313 / 1413
  44. If the nose landing gear indicates unsafe, there is no need to inspect the main landing gear because the indication systems are totally independent of each other.
    1. True
    2. False
  45. It is impossible to insert the main landing gear pins with the downlock pawls retracted.
    1. True
    2. False
  46. With an aileron jammed full down, experience has shown that aircraft control deteriorates rapidly at airspeeds of KCAS or less.
    1. 147
    2. 180
    3. 200
    4. 220
  47. If only one spoiler panel fails to close due to failure of a quadrant, the flaps shall not be extended under any circumstances.
    1. True
    2. False
  48. After loss of all generators and the malfunctioning generator has not been identified,
    1. return system to normal configuration.
    2. place only one bus tie switch back on the main AC tie bus.
    3. leave the bus tie switches open and monitor all four generators for abnormal indication.
    4. both a & b
  49. If a fuel quantity indicator malfunctions,
    1. wait till the needle rotates to zero, then open the circuit breaker.
    2. leave indicator alone until proper maintenance has been accomplished.
    3. open the circuit breaker, do not reset until proper inspection and repair has been accomplished.
    4. both a & b are correct.
  50. If a hot or hung start occurs while accomplishing a FIRE HANDLE START, allow the engine to motor for at least ____ seconds after the fire handle is pulled.
    1. 10
    2. 15
    3. 30
    4. 45
  51. What action(s) should be taken if cabin pressurization is lost above 20,000 feet?
    1. Recompute cabin differential for the new aircraft cruise altitude.
    2. Place the AN/APS-133 function selector switch to STBY to prevent arcing.
    3. Place the AN/APS-133 function selector switch and ANT STAB switch to STBY.
    4. Radar reception will deteriorate. Increase gain to enhance radar returns.
  52. If there is an immediate need to clear the flight deck, or if the cargo area fire is out and further ventilation is required, consideration should be given to:
    1. depressurizing the aircraft.
    2. turning off the troop oxygen system.
    3. closing the flight station door.
    4. opening the No. 1 hatch once depressurized.
  53. If all doors are secured, and it can be positively determined that the DOOR OPEN light illuminated because of a limit switch:
    1. land as soon as possible anyway.
    2. descend to an altitude not requiring oxygen.
    3. aircraft may be fully pressurized.
    4. depressurize to 4.0 PSID for remainder of flight.
  54. What action(s) should be taken if unexplained loud noises/bangs are heard by any crew member?
    1. Immediately depressurize to 4.0 PSID for the remainder of the flight.
    2. Maintain pressurization at a point below where the noise was heard.
    3. Immediately depressurize to 6.0 PSID for the remainder of the flight.
    4. Descend to FL 22.0 to keep cabin altitude below 10,000 feet.
  55. What precaution should the flight engineer observe to maintain fuel distribution requirements while jettisoning?
    1. Maintain an equal amount of fuel in the inboard tanks to ensure the aircraft should be trimmed in the landing configuration.
    2. Maintain an equal amount of fuel in outboard main and auxiliary tanks equal to inboard main tanks.
    3. Maintain an amount of fuel in the inboard main and inboard auxiliary tanks equal to inboard main tanks.
    4. Once set in motion, fuel STOP PUMP circuits automatically terminate jettisoning to maintain proper fuel distribution.
  56. If any abnormal brake pressure is observed during ground operation, the flight engineer should check that the following circuit breakers are in:
    1. anti-skid power, emergency brakes, #3 system control.
    2. normal brakes, emergency brakes, #3 system power.
    3. emergency brakes, anti-skid power, normal and emergency brake pressure.
    4. anti-skid power, landing gear control, emergency brakes.
  57. After landing, if emergency brakes are selected and the spoilers do not deploy, make only ____________ additional attempt(s) to deploy them because of the excessive demand that may be placed on the number three hydraulic system.
    1. 1
    2. 2
    3. 3
    4. 4
  58. The scanner's "AFTER DITCHING" action is to:
    1. launch life rafts through HATCH #2 and exit through HATCH #1.
    2. exit through HATCH #1.
    3. launch life rafts through HATCH #2 and exit through HATCH #2.
    4. exit through HATCH #2.
  59. If the rudder system fails to shift to the low pressure mode above 160 +/- knots, what is the corrective action?
    1. Reduce airspeed to 150 KCAS.
    2. Place the rudder high-pressure override switch in OVERRIDE.
    3. Operate the rudder with one power control switch in OFF.
    4. Operate the rudder with both power control switches in OFF.
  60. Possible fire/explosion may occur if hydraulic fluid mist/fog is present due to hydraulic system failure. The system should not be repressurized:
    1. unless the pilot is ready to extend the landing gear.
    2. unless, in the opinion of the pilot, a greater emergency exists.
    3. until just prior to landing to assure normal brakes.
    4. unless all crew members are on oxygen.
  61. Since a CSD cannot be reconnected in flight, do not disconnect more than ______ CSDs for frequency fluctuation associated with an AC loadmeter fluctuation or generator out light.
    1. 2
    2. 3
    3. 1
    4. Do not disconnect CSDs for frequency fluctuations. Hold the generator switch in TEST for one minute.
  62. If the number three hydraulic system is lost, and the accumulators are charged, do not activate the pumps because:
    1. actuation of the pumps will open the main DC pump circuit breakers.
    2. pressure will be lost through the solenoid operated shutoff valves.
    3. the brakes will cycle if normal brakes are selected and anti-skid is OFF.
    4. the brakes will cycle if emergency brakes are selected and anti-skid is OFF.
  63. In case of an actual loss of normal DC power while operating the air conditioning system in RIGHT, the flight engineer will position the air conditioning master switch to:
    1. leave in RIGHT.
    2. BOTH.
    3. LEFT.
    4. OFF.
  64. With a loss on normal DC power, place the brake selector switch in the _________ position.
    1. NORMAL
    2. EMERGENCY
    3. OFF
    4. GROUND TEST
  65. If a fuel boost pump circuit breaker opens:
    1. turn off the switch for that pump before closing the circuit breaker.
    2. turn off the switch for that pump, turn on the secondary pump, then close the circuit breaker.
    3. close the circuit breaker after allowing sufficient time for the pump's thermal switch to reset.
    4. turn off the switch for that pump, turn on the secondary pump, then open the remaining circuit breakers.
  66. It is permissible to reset a circuit breaker that was opened for a malfunctioning fuel quantity indicator.
    1. True
    2. False
  67. If a FIL BY-PASS light illuminates during flight:
    1. place the fuel heater to ON for 30 seconds to eliminate icing as a possible cause.
    2. place the fuel heater switch to ON for one minute to eliminate icing as a possible cause.
    3. the engine should be shut down if the FIL BY-PASS light does not extinguish within 30 seconds.
    4. place the fuel heater switch to ON only if alternate grade fuel is being used.
  68. During the battery start checklist with external air, but no electrical power:
    1. engine fire extinguishers will be available, engine fire detector will not be operative.
    2. engine fire detection circuit will be operative, engine fire extinguishers will be available.
    3. neither fire extinguishers or the fire detection circuits will be available, have fire trucks standing by.
    4. none of the above are correct.
  69. If a push-back/tow without engines running is required, ramp gross weight shall not exceed and the nose gear pin will be:
    1. 240,000 pounds / installed
    2. 240,000 pounds / removed
    3. 325,000 pounds / installed
    4. 325,000 pounds / removed
  70. When the inboard auxiliary tanks are empty and fuel is present in the extended range tanks, gravity flow of fuel through the ejector system from the extended range tanks to its respective inboard auxiliary tank is uncontrollable.
    1. True
    2. False
  71. If the scanner's presence is required in the cargo compartment for landing, the scanner will:
    1. ensure his/her harness is connected to station 1313.
    2. be seated immediately adjacent to the crew entrance door.
    3. be seated with seat belt fastened and on interphone.
    4. the scanner must occupy a seat on the flight deck regardless of circumstances.
  72. Fuel should be balanced before a landing is attempted. Maximum allowable unbalance limits apply to each pair of tanks that can be trimmed to
    1. 1.5 Vs (approach configuration)
    2. 1.2 Vs (approach configuration)
    3. 1.05 Vs (landing configuration)
    4. 1.2 Vs (landing configuration
    )
  73. Which of the following taxiing limitations does not apply?
    1. Do not taxi with the cargo-door below the horizontal position.
    2. Ensure the aircraft will clear obstructions by 30 feet before proceeding.
    3. Do not open the cargo doors if the taxi surface varies excessively.
    4. Avoid braking to a stop while the aircraft is in a turn.
  74. If it becomes necessary to open the troop doors when the ramp and petal doors are open in flight:
    1. Only open one troop door to minimize wind blast.
    2. Only open the right troop door since it is structurally stronger.
    3. Never open the troop doors when the ramp and petal doors are open.
    4. Use extreme caution to prevent personal injury.
  75. Which of the following thrust settings is limited to 5 minutes?
    1. TRT EPR
    2. Go-Around EPR
    3. Reduced EPR
    4. all of the above
  76. Momentary oil pressure indications between 55 and 60 PSI following rapid advancement of the throttles to take-off or go-around power is permissible provided pressure returns to normal:
    1. during climbout.
    2. within 10 minutes after power is reduced.
    3. within 1 minute after power is reduced.
    4. and oil temperature does not exceed 100 degrees Centigrade.
  77. Before placing the radar function selector switch in WX, MAP1, MAP2, or BCN positions, ensure all personnel are clear of the antenna radiation hazard area which is feet.
    1. 100
    2. 50
    3. 300
    4. 25
  78. What operating cycle will be observed using the windshield COLD START switches?
    1. 1.5 minutes on / 5 min. off
    2. 5 sec on / 10 sec off
    3. 30 sec on / 1 min off
    4. There is no COLD START operating cycle.
  79. Snow or ice accumulation can increase takeoff distances and adversely affect climbout performance, stalling speed, and handling characteristics. Which of the following applies?
    1. Snow, ice, and heavy frost must be removed from the control surfaces prior to flight.
    2. Takeoffs with light snow or frost buildups of 1/8" or less on the control surfaces is permissible.
    3. Snow buildup on the radome is acceptable since deicing fluid will deteriorate the neoprene coating and will blow off on takeoff roll.
    4. Ice accumulations of 1 1/2" on the wings is acceptable since flexing on the wings will occur naturally as the aircraft lifts off.
  80. When the ambient temperature is above ________ degrees centigrade, do not operate engine anti-ice for more than __________
    1. 8 / 1 minute
    2. 10 / 10 minutes
    3. 10 / 10 seconds
    4. 8 / 30 seconds
  81. If the flaps stall while operating them in low temperatures, immediately place the flap lever:
    1. to the previously selected position.
    2. to 75% to configure the aircraft for an emergency return.
    3. to the position shown on the flap indicator.
    4. to 100% to configure the aircraft for an emergency landing.
  82. Takeoff will not be attempted with over _____ of wet snow, slush and/or water, or __________ inches of dry snow on the runway.
    1. 3 inches / 6 inches
    2. 6 inches / 1/2 inch
    3. 1 inch / 3 inches
    4. 1/2 inch / 3 inches
  83. The total temp gauge may only be utilized for takeoff computations when operating at off-line stations without Metro assistance.
    1. True
    2. False
  84. Which of the following crosswind statements does not apply?
    1. Take-off shall not be made in the caution zone of the Runway and Crosswind Component chart if the runway is wet or icy.
    2. Take-off shall not be made if the crosswind exceeds the Maximum Crosswind for Take-off limit.
    3. Take-off shall not be made in the not recommended zone of the Runway and Crosswind Component chart.
    4. Take-off shall not be made in the caution zone even if increasing the gross weight results in a normal zone computation.
  85. It is permissible to exceed the maximum energy absorption capability of the brakes when:
    1. VB(mAx) is GO and is less than VcEF.
    2. VB(mAx) is GO and exceeds VCEF.
    3. VB(mAx) is GO and is greater than VMCG but less than VCEF.
    4. Never, since hydraulic fluid fires or tire explosions may occur.
  86. With an inoperative engine at the No. 1 or No. 2 position, the loss of a second engine on the left side would:
    1. cause loss of the No. 2 hydraulic system.
    2. prevent the crew from retracting the landing gear.
    3. cause loss of the emergency generator as a backup source of power.
    4. all of the above.
  87. At extreme high gross weights and pressure altitudes, flap retraction speed may exceed flap limit speed.
    1. True
    2. False
  88. Which of the following field elevation statement(s) applies when determining climbout capability with an obstacle?
    1. Field elevation is the highest elevation on any airdrome runway.
    2. For airfields with multiple runways, use the highest point of the departure runway.
    3. Field elevation is the highest point on the airbase.
    4. Both A and B are correct.
  89. If maximum spoiler ground limit speed is "GO" and ground minimum control speed (VmcG) exceeds 147 KCAS, the takeoff will not be attempted.
    1. True
    2. False